UPSKILL MATH PLUS

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Example 1:
If P(A) = \frac{1}{2}, P(B) = \frac{1}{3} and P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{6}, then find the value of P(A \cup B).
 
Solution:
Addition Theorem of Probability:
 
If A and B are any two non mutually exclusive events then:
 
P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B)
Substitute the known values in the above theorem.
 
P(A \cup B) = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{6}
 
= \frac{3 + 2 - 1}{6}
 
= \frac{5 - 1}{6}
 
= \frac{4}{6}
 
= \frac{2}{3}
 
Therefore, the value of P(A \cup B) is \frac{2}{3}.
Example  2:
Find the probability of getting a king or a black card or a jack card from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards.
 
Solution:
 
Let S be the sample space.
 
Here S = 52\text{ cards}.
 
\Rightarrow n(S) = 52.
 
Let A be the event of getting a king card.
 
So, n(A) = 4.
 
Thus, P(A) = \frac{n(A)}{n(S)} = \frac{4}{52}.
 
Let B be the event of getting a black card.
 
So, n(B) = 13.
 
Thus, P(B) = \frac{n(B)}{n(S)} = \frac{13}{52}.
 
Let C be the event of getting a jack card.
 
So, n(C) = 4.
 
Thus, P(C) = \frac{n(C)}{n(S)} = \frac{4}{52}.
 
Here, P(A \cap B) = Probability of getting a black king.
 
So, P(A \cap B) = \frac{2}{52}.
 
Here, P(B \cap C) = Probability of getting a black jack.
 
So, P(B \cap C) = \frac{2}{52}.
 
Here, P(A \cap C) = Probability of getting a king and a jack.
 
So, P(A \cap C) = \frac{0}{52}.
 
Thus, P(A \cap B \cap C) = \frac{0}{52}.
Addition Theorem of Probability:
 
If A, Band C are any three non mutually exclusive events then:
 
P(A \cup B \cup C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) - P(A \cap B) - P(B \cap C) - P(A \cap C) + P(A \cap B \cap C)
Substitute the known values in the above theorem.
 
P(A \cup B \cup C) = \frac{4}{52} + \frac{13}{52} + \frac{4}{52} - \frac{2}{52} - \frac{2}{52} - \frac{0}{52} + \frac{0}{52}
 
= \frac{21 - 4 + 0}{52}
 
= \frac{17}{52}
 
Hence, the value of P(A \cup B \cup C) is \frac{17}{52}.
 
Therefore, the probability of getting a king or a black card or a jack card from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards is \frac{17}{52}.
Example 3:
If P(A) = \frac{1}{2}, P(B) = \frac{1}{3} and P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{6}, then find the value of (i) P(\text{only }A) (ii) P(\text{only }B).
 
Solution:
By the theorem, we have:
 
(i) P(A \cap \overline B) = P(\text{only A}) = P(A) - P(A \cap B)
 
(ii) P(\overline A \cap B) = P(\text{only B}) = P(B) - P(A \cap B)
(i) P(\text{only A}) = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{6}
 
= \frac{3 - 1}{6}
 
= \frac{2}{6}
 
= \frac{1}{3}
 
Therefore, the value of P(\text{only A}) is \frac{1}{3}.
 
 
(ii) P(\text{only B}) = \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{6}
 
= \frac{2 - 1}{6}
 
= \frac{1}{6}
 
Therefore, the value of P(\text{only B}) is \frac{1}{6}.